Forum Discussion
Altera_Forum
Honored Contributor
17 years agoIt's true i think that the amplitude of I^2+Q^2 is always a constant due to the thing that I and Q have a difference in phase of π, so like the common expression cos(f)^2+sin(f)^2=1 the amplitude of I^2+Q^2 must be a constant.So we don"t need to worry about the division part of the algorithm m = (I.dQ - Q.dI)/(I^2 + Q^2)we simply can compute m = (I.dQ - Q.dI).